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    5. Experimental real property tax basis-set rate based on usable area per person

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      Random thought. What if we taxed property based on the area per person of the property, as opposed to sale value? Edit and quick intro to those who mostly rent: most real property in the US,...

      Random thought. What if we taxed property based on the area per person of the property, as opposed to sale value?

      Edit and quick intro to those who mostly rent: most real property in the US, especially residential property, is taxed yearly based on some variation of something called "fair market value," usually assessed by a local tax assessor's office

      I'm proposing that a property would be taxed for every square meter of space per person in the designated property unit. It can't be totally simplified, but should be fairly straightforward. There could also be progressive brackets. It might not make make sense to apply it strictly per person, but rather for a typical use. That is, we would assume "single family residential" properties to house 3.4 (totally made up number) people per house and property.

      The goal of this is to find a fair, market-driven incentive to build density into urban cores.

      A similar approach could be applied to commercial space (but probably not industrial).

      It could be coupled with a sales tax (currently missing in most real property tax regimes, at least in the US) to capture runaway property valuations in certain jurisdictions.

      Alternatively, we could drop the property value based tax rate (but not eliminate it), and then add a per person-area surcharge.

      It's not meant to increase revenue, although it could certainly be used that way. It could also be use to decrease revenue, and maybe that would be a good way to sell it. But at the end of the day, developers and residents would both have an incentive to pursue as dense development as possible, even if there is not a density driving pressure of desirablity, which only exists in a few really cool urban cores.

      8 votes

    24. GDP per capita vs. the federal poverty rate over the years (observation and discussion)

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      Fair warning, I'm a dummy trying to talk about stuff I don't fully understand, but I wanted to see others' thoughts on this. In the 1960s, America's GDP (per capita) was $3,000. Also, in 1960, the...

      Fair warning, I'm a dummy trying to talk about stuff I don't fully understand, but I wanted to see others' thoughts on this.

      In the 1960s, America's GDP (per capita) was $3,000.
      Also, in 1960, the federal poverty limit was $3,000 for a family of four.

      In 2023, the GDP (per capita) was $82,034.
      The federal poverty limit for a family of four in 2023 was $30,000.

      This can't be good for the American people. Unless I'm drawing comparisons between two completely unrelated things?

      People who are barely in poverty today would have to earn ~2.7x the amount they earn to stay consistent with those who were barely in poverty in the 1960s if GDP and FPL were still equal to each other. So what about the families caught in the middle? Too high earnings to get help and too low to thrive? They just suffer, I guess.

      Out of curiosity, I calculated what the thresholds would be if the percentages of GDP to FPL were swapped between 2023 and 1960.

      1960s numbers adjusted if FPL matched 2023's percentage:
      GDP=$3,000
      FPL=$1,111

      1960s numbers adjusted if GDP matched the percentage comparison of 2023:
      GDP=$8,100
      FPL=$3,000

      Please let me know if it actually matters that the GDP per capita is 2.7x the federal poverty limit for a family of four. Also, let me know your thoughts.

      8 votes

    32. I grew up in Michigan but currently live in Georgia. My GF and I are looking at buying a house, and both states have first time home buyer incentives, but they're income based.

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      So we make about $100,000 combined, I make just shy of 70K and she makes about 30K. Both states have programs for first time homebuyers, but our incomes together prohibit us from qualifying,...

      So we make about $100,000 combined, I make just shy of 70K and she makes about 30K.

      Both states have programs for first time homebuyers, but our incomes together prohibit us from qualifying, whereas separately we both qualify.

      Would it be considered fraud if I were to apply for one as myself, get the house in my name, but we both pay on it? I can't find anything on either page about it, but obviously we are not legally married.

      11 votes

    44. What's the best way to avoid scams when being paid by strangers on the internet?

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      Ugh. Scammers are everywhere, and I know I'm getting them in my inbox and junkmail, but I need a way to know who I am wasting my time on and who is a real client. My current client doesn't seem to...

      Ugh. Scammers are everywhere, and I know I'm getting them in my inbox and junkmail, but I need a way to know who I am wasting my time on and who is a real client.

      My current client doesn't seem to speak in the usual way (for example saying "you have replied to me perfectly" in response to me asking "Please let me know if this works for you or if you wish to negotiate"). They want to pay me via a cashier's check. I just now told them I only accept PayPal payments (that is what I've always used). Waiting for a response now.

      So my question is, which of these would be the most secure method of payment to use over the internet, with strangers, where contact is via email?

      PayPal
      Wire transfer
      Cashier's check
      Other (write in comments)

      19 votes